Initial Tower Cab Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What does PA stand for in training contexts?
• Do not authorize an aircraft to line up and wait at an intersection ___.
• Which statement identifies the main contributing factor to runway incursions?
• Before using a runway not previously designated as active, which control action is required?
• A departing Cirrus SR22 is airborne. The earliest time you may clear a succeeding Piper Cherokee for takeoff from the same runway using minimum prescribed separation is ___.
• Controllers must advise pilots of hazardous weather contained in HIWAS broadcasts that may impact operations within how many nautical miles of their sector?
• The LLWAS system is comprised of a minimum of ______ stations.
• Which procedure is used by ATC to delay an aircraft for traffic management reasons?
• All LAHSO additional criteria, procedures, responsibilities and definitions are contained in which document?
• In a nonradar environment, authorize simultaneous same-direction departures from parallel runways when centerlines are separated by _________ and courses diverge by __________ immediately after takeoff.
• At Academy Tower, Ground Control must pass requests to close VFR flight plans to ___ for relay to the FSS.
• What data is contained in Field 2 of FDIO messages?
• Which components of a FDIO are used to compose and edit outgoing messages?
• When should you relay the new ATIS code to the other tower operating positions?
• Which schedule describes when wind-direction and speed indicator readings must be checked at facilities with an associated NWS office?
• What term is included in ATIS following wind shear advisories and remains in effect until 20 minutes after the last report?
• Which outcome is ensured by the four-step position relief briefing process?
• LC must verbally coordinate with departure control for which operations?
• ALD stands for which term in runway operations?
• Preventive airport traffic control service is provided only to aircraft operating in accordance with what?
• What document records monthly trainee progress discussions by the training team?
• When information is received that a bomb is on or near an aircraft, what action should be taken?
• Which facility forwards ELT information to RCC?
• Helicopter ground taxiing uses less fuel than hover-taxiing and ___.
• A time used by ATC to advise an aircraft that the departure release is automatically cancelled if takeoff is not made prior to a specific time.
• What are the SRS categories?
• Who has the responsibility for verifying that OJT/OJF times are recorded accurately?
• For how long after the last report or indication of wind shear/microburst, should an advisory statement be included on the ATIS?
• Which spacing technique involves the following: execute a left or right 360-degree turn to adjust spacing?
• In CWT categorization, a GLF4 would be placed in which category?
• A M20P, N144TT, is requesting a touch-and-go behind a departing LJ35, N1HD. What is the required wake turbulence separation?
• Separate Category E through I aircraft landing behind a departing Category B, C, or D aircraft on a crossing runway if the arrival will fly through the airborne path of the departure by a minimum of ___ minutes or the appropriate radar separation minima.
• What is an unscheduled weather advisory issued for ATC use to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next 2 hours?
• If the altimeter is 29.89, what is the lowest usable flight level?
• Which term is included in the standard braking action descriptors?
• When an aircraft is responding to an RA, traffic advisories and safety alerts regarding terrain and obstructions should be provided for ___.
• Which step involves taking on the duties and responsibilities of the position?
• What is the correct sequence of the standard position relief briefing steps?
• During a visual approach, the pilot must have which in sight at all times?
• Specific values of weather information may be transmitted to the pilot if the information is obtained from whom?
• Local Control and Ground Control must coordinate the use of ____________.
• Which statement best describes the phraseology for an unplanned IFR missed approach to RWY 28R?
• Vortices are generated at the moment the aircraft leaves the ground. Which option correctly completes the statement?
• For helicopter departures, tailwind downwind takeoffs should not exceed how many KTs unless agreed by the pilot?
• When issuing an RNAV SID, the controller is required to give the ______ to the pilot.
• What term describes a departure time restriction issued by ATC to separate a departing aircraft from other traffic?
• In non-radar environments with no approach services and no appropriate fix or time criteria, the departing aircraft must be established on a course diverging by at least how many degrees before the arriving aircraft begins procedure turn?
• What is the phraseology for an aircraft on an unplanned IFR missed approach to Runway 10L?
• Who may use direct-dial or LLWAS wind information for operational purposes?
• What current weather changes must be forwarded to the appropriate control facility?
• Which is the correct wind shear alert phraseology for local control referencing wind direction, velocity, sensor location, and boundary wind?
• Which controller position is described as providing safety alerts and remaining alert for unsafe proximity situations?
• Which option describes the tool used to maintain the arrival/departure sequence on the field?
• AIRMETs supplement which forecast product?
• In radar operations, arrivals can be separated from departures by a minimum of 2 miles when the separation will increase to 3 mils within 1 minute after takeoff. The 2-mile minimum is determined when which event occurs?
• A controller's responsibility for applying Traffic Management initiatives and programs do NOT have priority over ___?
• An aircraft weighing 300,000 pounds will fall into which weight class?
• For LAHSO, which option identifies the term for the runway portion used for landing and rollout?
• Which amendment line is used to reflect BE20/L for N20WK?
• Aircraft and vehicle access to the ILS critical area must be controlled to ensure ILS integrity whenever the ceiling is less than ________ or visibility less than __________.
• In wind shear alert phraseology, which wind is used to designate the wind near the boundary sensor location?
• The diameter of a microburst.
• The FDIO display contains a print display area, _____________, and verify/non-verify mode indicator.
• FDIO messages are composed of separate sections of data called ______.
• Which of the following is NOT a standard braking action descriptor?
• In the scenario where an IFR aircraft requests a ground delay but the pilot wants to depart VFR, what should be relayed to approach control facility?
• Consider an aircraft cleared for touch-and-go as an arriving aircraft until it ___.
• ILS stands for which of the following?
• In the ATIS broadcast, NOTAMS that affect operations should be included in the ...
• The diameter of a microburst is defined as 2.5 miles or less.
• To amend the route of flight in a previously issued clearance, the correct phraseology is _____________
• Before observing the operational situation and work environment that you are to relieve, you should review the ___.
• What is always given when authorizing use of a runway and a tailwind component exists?
• A determination can be made as to whether an aircraft on the ground has an operable receiver, but NO transmitter, by asking the pilot to ___.
• What is an example of the phraseology used to tell a pilot what routing to expect beyond a short-range clearance limit if the route differs from what was filed?
• The letter E in the left hand margin of FAA Form 7230-4 denotes a(n) __.
• In Block 4 of FAA Form 3120-25, the weather is described as VFR, ___, IFR, or Other.
• What is the phraseology to authorize an IFR flight-planned aircraft to depart VFR?
• If a NAVAID outage is reported, the initial step is to solicit reports from additional aircraft to verify the outage.
• Which command yields a flight plan readout for N23317?
• When is it necessary to include the departure runway in an ATIS message?
• In the hold-short phraseology example, what phrase is used to indicate traffic related to arriving or landing flights?
• Which weather product provides hazardous in-flight weather information and is broadcast over selected VOR outlets?
• What are the wake categories of aircraft?
• For clear and dry runways, unless a greater crosswind component is approved by the applicable Flight Standards Office, the crosswind component for the selected runway (including gust value) must NOT be greater than ___ KT.
• What is the correct phraseology for instructing a vehicle/aircraft to cross a runway?
• Helicopters do NOT fall into a category because they are not fixed-wing aircraft.
• When answering a public access telephone, you would first state which phrase?
• If a SID has been (or will be) assigned with the _______________ published on it, then it may be omitted from a clearance.
• Ground Control must ensure stripmarking is completed for instructions or ___ issued or received.
• Who must be notified of a departing aircraft that is being taxied to a nonactive runway?
• An EDCT requires the aircraft to depart within what window relative to the assigned EDCT?
• Under FAR Part 91, who has final authority to determine the course of action in an emergency?
• Furnish the quality of braking action to all aircraft as received from ___.
• UAL433, a DC10, executes a missed approach on Runway 28R. N310MN, a C310, is waiting to depart at the approach end. N310MN may start takeoff roll ___.
• A third party may be allowed to use FAA radio communications when the information pertains to ___.
• Simultaneous opposite direction operations on parallel runways may only be conducted under which weather condition?
• Which is the correct phraseology for LC to authorize GC to cross an active runway?
• Which weather product provides forecasted meteorological conditions within a radius around the airport's runway complex?
• Runway Use Program aims to minimize what?
• Which identification feature indicates where the wings are mounted on the fuselage?
• What is a prominent identification feature of the BE35?
• What is the minimum distance for a Category I departing behind a Category III on the same runway?
• For CVFP weather minima, the required ceiling and visibility are 500 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
• N288DS, a P28A, is downwind for touch-and-go on Runway 28L. AAL432, an MD81, is departing Runway 28L. N288DS may not ___ until ___ minutes after AAL432 rotates.
• Equipment configurations generally conform to ___.
• Which statement best describes why a clearance that requires greater than normal taxiing power should be avoided?
• Before implementing a runway use program, coordination with which party is required?
• Which form is used for a daily record to document facility operations?
• Which form records the results and completion of training requirements for qualification courses, proficiency training, and other Agency-approved courses?
• A B744 is executing a low approach on Runway 18, and a King Air is ready for takeoff on Runway 36 (opposite direction). The minimum separation required to clear the King Air for takeoff is ___ minutes.
• In a relief briefing, which action is explicitly discouraged?
• What must be told to the aircraft if a SID does not contain crossing restrictions or is a SID w/ radar vectors?
• LLWAS alerts may indicate wind shear outside the network.
• Before and after applying visual separation, what must be ensured?
• Which of the following is an example of wind data LLWAS can indicate during wind shear events?
• The minimum required information to obtain when handling an emergency is the ___________, ____________, and _____________.
• Which action must be taken before authorizing a runway crossing in most control environments?
• '32A WSA 20K+ RWY 090 24' indicates that this is ____________.
• An aircraft departing behind a Category B or D on the same runway or parallel runways separated by less than 2,500 feet requires ___ minute(s) of wake turbulence separation.
• What is the phraseology used for unstable conditions producing multiple wind shear alerts?
• How many emergency staging locations are there on/at academy airport?
• Which identification feature refers to the shape of the fuselage?
• To what weight class of aircraft do runway use programs always apply?
• Broadcast on ___________ frequencies to advise aircraft of a change in the ATIS code/message.
• If a facility uses only aneroid instruments, the maximum discrepancy between two ASIs is
• When the runway is NOT visible from the tower, before transferring to the other frequency, the transferring controller must advise the receiving controller of what?
• Approve a pilot's request to cross Class C or D surface areas at a speed that does not exceed ___ knots, unless a higher minimum speed is required.
• Wake turbulence advisory behind a larger aircraft requiring wake separation should be issued to which aircraft?
• When issuing wake turbulence advisories to any aircraft landing behind the arriving or departing Category B or D aircraft that is on the same runway or parallel runway separated by less than 2,500 feet, an example of the phraseology is ___.
• The phraseology to clear an aircraft for takeoff is which?
• The virgule (/) is used in the NOTAM text to ___?
• When is new ATIS released?
• Which statement correctly pairs an element with its measured value from the provided data?
• Which altitude instruction should be given to an aircraft on a SID when there are no crossing restrictions or the SID uses radar vectors?
• Landing information contained in the ATIS broadcast may be omitted if the pilot states which of the following?
• Which unit is used to express the proximity of traffic to LUAW in flying distance reporting?
• If pilots persist in their request to depart from a closed runway, quote them the appropriate parts of the NOTAM applying to the runway and ___.
• What is the maximum percentage of OJT hours that a trainee's OM or ATM may add to the target hours?
• Which option demonstrates the correct phraseology for clearing to Tulsa Airport via J104 with the digits spoken as words?
• Complete the LLWS alert dissemination rule: 'Controllers must issue LLWS alerts to ______ until ______ and pilot advises they have received the code'
• In a Simulated Flameout approach, which sequence represents the correct order?
• How many operational positions are you required to observe by On-the-Job Familiarization (OJF)?
• What statement must be included in the ATIS following a report of indication of wind shear?
• What is always included when issuing a departure clearance for relay to an aircraft by an FSS dispatcher?
• At Academy Tower, the Local Control position must use automatic releases on ___.
• Do not issue ___ instructions dependent upon the movement of arrival aircraft on the runway.
• Which of the following is not a recognized method of orienting an aircraft?
• When must an advisory be issued if the ILS critical area is not protected and a 'coupled', 'CAT III', 'autoland' approach will be conducted?
• What RwyCC value defines ICE on the runway and is described as having poor braking action?
• Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) operation is required when visibility is less than how many miles?
• When ceiling is above 5,000 feet and visibility is more than 5 miles, which information may be omitted?
• What phraseology is used for clearing an aircraft to the Tulsa Airport via J104?
• In the context of visual separation, which term describes the separation that remains valid after applying visual separation?
• What is the first action to take when an aircraft reports an NAVAID malfunction?
• Which standby locations would emergency equipment go to for an emergency on Runway 34?
• Which format correctly updates the aircraft type for N34868 to BE36/A?
• Avoid clearances that require Category ______ to taxi in proximity or hover-taxiing helicopters.
• What is the portion of a runway available for landing and rollout for aircraft cleared for LAHSO called?
• What term describes precise taxi instructions given to a pilot unfamiliar with the airport or issued in stages that may include step-by-step directions?
• What is the expected effect that a 1 to 5 KT crosswind will have on wake vortices?
• Who may assign Supplemental OJT Time?
• Which taxiway width is 200 feet?
• FDIO messages are composed of separate sections of data called _________.
• In controller communications, what does the directive 'CROSS' indicate?
• Except where a runway use program is in effect, you should use the runway most nearly aligned with the wind when the wind is _____ KT or more.
• Once established, participation in a formal runway use program is mandatory for which group?
• When must you issue a safety alert?
• What is the format for a Remove Strip message on AAL233?
• Position determination of an aircraft on the airport may be determined visually by the controller, by pilots, or through the use of ___.
• What is the standard radio phrase to grant takeoff clearance?
• Which option correctly defines a waypoint as used in flight planning?
• If suitable landmarks are not available to determine distances on the same runway, a departing aircraft must not begin takeoff roll until the preceding departure has become airborne and crossed the runway end or ___.
• Who shares responsibility for the completeness and accuracy of the position relief briefing?
• An asterisk at the end of the LLWAS display is read as which of the following?
• A small business jet aircraft will fall into which aircraft category?
• A Terminal Area Forecast (TAF) is a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions within a radius of how many statute miles of the center of an airport's runway complex?
• When can you assume control of an aircraft being transferred to you?
• Who must assure emergency vehicles has radio capability on Ground Control frequency or are escorted to/from accident scene?
• Issue current touchdown RVR to departing aircraft for the runway in use when the prevailing visibility is ___ or less.
• Helicopters are authorized to conduct simultaneous takeoffs if the ___.
• Which of the following is an example of wind shear advisory phraseology?
• The phraseology in response to a helicopter request for takeoff from a area off the airport is ___.
• Local Control provides safety alerts as part of its duties. Which option best describes this responsibility?
• When operating in VFR conditions with an ATC authorization to maintain VFR-on-top, aircraft must ___.
• Which statement best describes the requirement when a clearance amendment changes route?
• If LLWAS senses a problem at one or more sensors, the tower cab display will indicate 'STATION ERROR' on the affected Line(s).
• If the reported RVR differs from actual conditions by more than 400 feet, how should the RVR data be treated?
• What RwyCC value is used for minimal to non-existent braking action described as NIL?
• Which block/section on Form 3120-25 contains the performance ratings such as Satisfactory?
• What RwyCC value defines a WET runway and is described as having GOOD braking action?
• In monitoring traffic, which factor does the LC use to predict possible overload?
• Issue the measured distance from the intersection to the runway end rounded down to the nearest ___ feet.
• The official ceiling and visibility is issued to departing IFR aircraft when the weather is ____________.
• For how long must ATIS broadcast unauthorized laser illumination events?
• UAL10, a DC10, is departing from the approach end. N123JL, an LJ35, is waiting to depart from an intersection 600 feet down the runway. The soonest N123JL can depart is ___ minutes after UAL10 ___.
• IFR separation is required regardless of weather (VMC or IMC).
• Which control provides direct communication with the aircraft in the airport area and is primarily responsible for ground and airspace separation near runways?
• Which option is a T-tail?
• Which message indicates that RPA46 departed at 1815?
• What is the minimum separation, in time, for a BE36 departing behind an MD11?
• Request a readback of runway hold short instructions when ___.
• Which factor is most consistent with initial separation planning for successive departures in radar environments?
• What is the purpose of setting radar displays to the appropriate area of jurisdiction?
• When aircraft elect to take a delay on the ground, issue departure clearances in the order _____________
• What is the format to send a Departure Message (DM) on N100WM at 2330?
• A Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a radius of _________ from the center of an airport's runway complex.
• What is the phraseology used to issue the time a pilot can expect to start engines when gate hold procedures are in effect?
• Which phraseology is used to achieve proper spacing?
• When a pilot reports an inflight equipment malfunction, controllers must determine the ___.
• Controllers may authorize simultaneous opposite direction operations on parallel runways only when __________.
• How can you pause an ATIS while recording?
• Make a new recording of ATIS when...
• Which document and paragraph define the wind shear alert phraseology used by local controllers?
• LLWAS wind information is used for operational purposes by which facilities?
• The trainee signing FAA Form 3120-25 implies ___.
• All of the following is contained on an SIA except?
• A Simulated Flameout approach pattern consists of __________.
• When applying visual separation, the controller should inform the pilot about the other aircraft's position, direction, type, and intentions.
• When applying same runway separation between departures, if the succeeding aircraft is a helicopter, what type of separation may be applied in lieu of distance minima?
• When does assumption of the position take place?
• An example of phraseology used to achieve proper spacing is __________.
• The MIS is an unscheduled planning forecast describing conditions expected to begin within 4 to 12 hours which may impact the flow of traffic in __________.
• In a radar environment, departures on parallel runways heading the same direction may be released simultaneously if courses diverge by at least 15 degrees and centerlines are separated by at least how many feet?
• If you suggest that an IFR aircraft take a delay on the ground, but the pilot insists on taking off VFR, what should be relayed to the approach control facility?
• An air traffic controller's first priority is separation of aircraft and ___.
• Who conducts the verbal briefing?
• In the LAHSO example phrase, which runway is the landing aircraft cleared to land on?
• In the daylight LAHSO context, what does CAT II refer to?
• When a PIREP is received, what information is documented?
• If there is no runway use program in effect, which wind condition indicates the calm wind runway should be used?
• In FAA Form 3120-1, which section is designated for Management and Other Training?
• The information about the runway, wind, and altimeter may be omitted if the pilot states they ______________.
• When route and altitude in a previously issued clearance is amended, _____________ must be restated.
• In the AAC example phraseology, which runway is designated for the intersection departure at Spartan Aviation?
• Which of the following is NOT a duty of the Clearance Delivery position?
• When should use of another controller's airspace be coordinated?
• Issue departure information to departing aircraft by including the time when ____________?
• What is described by the notation '32A WSA 20K+ RWY 090 24'??
• What are the approved pattern entries for RWY 28L/R from Southwest, Sand Springs, Owasso, and Chandler?
• What is the correct phraseology to cancel the succeeding aircraft's takeoff clearance when the preceding departure aborts on the same runway?
• What is the prominent identification feature of the C172?
• Who must Clearance Delivery relay tower visibility to?
• At FAA facilities with an associated NWS office, wind-direction and speed indicator readings must be checked when?
• LC must advise TRACON of all the following except which?
• Operate Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) when the visibility is less than ___ mile(s).
• Transfer control at a prescribed time, fix, location, or altitude and only after what?
• One of the responsibilities of the training team is to ___.
• Issue the appropriate departure control frequency and beacon code before ___.
• Instruct civil aircraft, military transport, and cargo types to contact departure control about ___ mile(s) beyond the runway end.
• Problems may occur during the position relief briefing when there is heavy reliance on ___.
• What happens on the LLWAS display when wind shear is detected by a remote station?
• Start over with the ID code 'Alpha' when ATIS service is resumed after being off the air for more than how many hours?
• Before penetrating another controller's airspace, what action is required?
• How would you clear an aircraft direct to a waypoint/fix?
• In the AAC example, what is the ground control facility used?
• Runway surface condition and Runway Condition Reading (RCR) should be issued to all ___ aircraft.
• All taxiway lights at Academy Airport are ___-intensity.
• When issuing a wake turbulence advisory, which information should be included?
• Which of the following is a Category G aircraft?
• Which control position maintains direct communication with the aircraft and ensures separation of aircraft on the runways and in the designated airspace?
• What is an unscheduled weather advisory issued for ATC used to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next two hours?
• What type of report must be made for any occurrence involving air traffic services where collection of associated safety-related data and conditions is mandatory?
• In what type of airport environments are runway incursions most likely to cause harm?
• Which statement describes the three basic wing placements found on aircraft?
• PIREPs and Braking action reports must be forwarded to all the following except?
• Which group must be informed about rubber-supported cables at the approach end?
• To be cleared for a visual approach, overtaking aircraft must be advised of the ___ and ___ of the preceding aircraft.
• An Alert #2 would indicate which type of difficulty?
• Land and Hold Short runways must be free of contamination with no reports that braking action is less than which level?
• Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisories including the position, altitude if known, and direction of flight to aircraft operating behind an aircraft that requires wake turbulence separation when ___.
• What is the format to amend the proposed departure time of N2314S to 1345?
• Where should wind information be oriented when issued by ATC if requested or deemed appropriate by ATC?
• Which defines Alert 3?
• HIWAS alerts are broadcast by controllers upon receipt of hazardous weather information. Which statement is true?
• Immediately after previewing the position, which step begins?
• The FAA form used to record the results and the completion of all training and serves as the official, permanent record for the employee.
• Which positions are responsible for visually scanning the runway?
• Local Control ensures that performance of control instructions are in compliance with handbooks, facility procedures, and ___.
• Minimum information required for inflight emergencies.
• Under minimum prescribed separation, the preceding aircraft must be ___ for the separation to be applied using landmarks.
• What are the approved pattern entries for RWY 28L/R from Southeast or MacDonald's Bridge?
• One of the methods employed by Traffic Management personnel to minimize delays is ___?
• Which role is most likely to oversee the trainee's progression and monthly progress discussions?
• Target time ___.
• What is the proper way to state the reported RVR value?
• Which identification feature concerns the presence and arrangement of windows on the aircraft?
• Prior to being assigned OJTI duties, the selected individual must ___.
• Traffic advisories are NOT provided to an aircraft in which situation?
• Pilots reports of wind shear must be issued to all arriving and departing aircraft until which event occurs?
• When wind shear is detected by a remote station, an audible alarm will sound and ____________.
• In the position relief briefing process, when does the relieving specialist review the SIA?
• Which command is used to remove the flight strip UAL720 CID 112?
• Who is responsible for ensuring that a proposed runway use program is in compliance with FAA Order 8400.9?
• Departure information for departing aircraft includes braking action for the runway in use when ___.
• Which FAA form is used to record trainee progression by OJTIs and supervisors?
• What term describes an unplanned abortive maneuver initiated by the pilot due to cockpit systems, characterized by maximum thrust climb in the terminal environment?
• Between sunrise and sunset if distances can be determined by landmarks, what is the minimum distance from the landing threshold for a Category I behind a Category I?
• What is the required phraseology for an aircraft on an unplanned IFR missed approach to Runway 28R?
• At what point is a low approach or go-around considered a departure?
• If the preceding aircraft is not in sight, clearance for a visual approach requires that either radar separation or visual separation be maintained.
• Which system provides wind information to towers for operational use?
• Which duty is NOT generally included in LC position duties?
• What is a shared responsibility between ground and local control?
• The time entered in the Time section of FAA Form 7230-4 will be in ___ time.
• Which group should contact departure control about one-half mile beyond the runway end?
• What is the width of taxiway A?
• SVFR operations in weather less than VFR conditions are authorized only with what surface areas?
• Before using a nonactive runway, the Local Controller must coordinate with which other control position?
• In the ATIS sequence, which element is presented second?
• Which spacing phraseology is used to instruct an aircraft to extend downwind to gain spacing?
• The Status Information Area (SIA) ___.
• The width of Taxiway C is ___ feet.
• Recognized methods of orienting an aircraft include radar, NAVAIDs, pilotage, and ___.
• When issuing a taxi clearance to a runway, what must be verified?
• What does RCC stand for in Runway Condition Code terminology?
• Which option is NOT listed among the basic tail configurations?
• An ATIS broadcast is identified by ___.
• What word should be used only when prompt compliance is required to avoid the development of an imminent situation?
• Which term describes helicopter movement on the surface at speeds generally above 20 knots and below 100 feet AGL?
• UAL433, a DC10, departs Runway 28R on an Academy One departure. DAL201, a MD81, is waiting to depart Runway 28L on a runway heading departure. The runways are 2,500 feet apart. the soonest DAL201 can start takeoff roll is ___.
• In the Runway Use Program, what tailwind component may be present for runways not clear and not dry?
• When wind shear is detected by a remote station, what happens on the LLWAS display?
• Both specialists are equally responsible for the completeness and accuracy of the ___.
• If a preceding large aircraft has rotated, how many minutes must the following aircraft wait before starting its takeoff roll?
• When an aircraft departs Runway 16/34, which control assigns the heading to IFR departures?
• Which statement correctly describes Hold For Release (HFR) instructions?
• If a trainee's performance is unsatisfactory during a practical exercise, which procedure is the initial step to address it?
• College courses taken during FAA employment are entered in ___ of FAA Form 3120-1.
• What does LUAW stand for in runway operations?
• Which phrase would be used to indicate wind shear conditions requiring attention due to unstable conditions producing multiple alerts?
• What verbal cue is used to indicate authorization to cross an active runway?
• Which role is designated to administer Certification Skill Checks?
• The occurrence of a column of air perpendicular to the ground with acceleration toward the ground defines a _________.
• Who must be informed whenever rubber-supported cables are in place at the approach end of the landing runway?
• Ground Control must notify Local Control when an aircraft is taxiing to which location for departure?
• It may be omitted from a clearance if the SID has the departure control frequency published on it.
• Local Control must verbally specify a runway to be crossed preceded by the word(s) ___.
• PIREPs are disseminated by which unit?
• Local controllers must visually scan runways ___.
• Runway braking action reports must always include the...
• In the LAHSO example phrase, which runway is the departing traffic using?
• An aircraft with a certified takeoff weight of ___ pounds or less will fall into the small weight class.
• If RVR is not acceptable due to a difference of more than 400 feet, which statement is true?
• In a nonradar environment, for two departures on the same runway whose courses diverge by 45° or more within 5 minutes after takeoff, how many minutes of separation is required until courses diverge?
• A pilot executing a visual approach must have the airport or the preceding aircraft in sight at all times.
• Performance Skills Checks are conducted at least ___.
• In the standard IFR clearance item order, which element comes immediately after ACID?
• When applying visual separation, the controller ___.
• An aircraft ID may contain up to how many characters?
• The 30-second average wind data for each corridor is determined by observing which rows of the LLWAS display?
• When in communication with an aircraft in distress, you should transfer responsibility ___.
• Which item is always included in a departure clearance for relay by an FSS dispatcher?
• Visual separation may be applied between aircraft up to but not including ________________.
• The FAA form used by OJTIs and Operations Supervisors to record the performance and progress of the trainee is _____________.
• Which field carries the Aircraft ID in FDIO messages?
• On the RCU in the recorder section, which switch places the associated recorder into the proper operating mode?
• When a taxi clearance to a runway is issued to an aircraft, confirm that the aircraft has the correct ___.
• Which identification feature involves the arrangement of the tail surfaces?
• Which FAA form is used for a daily record to document facility operations?
• When is a single period used in flight plan routes in FDIO messages?
• In non-radar parallel runway operations, what minimum centerline separation and divergence angle are required to authorize simultaneous departures?
• In helicopter takeoff sequencing, when can a second helicopter be cleared for takeoff?
• FD relays tower visibility to other tower positions, McAlester FSS, and which Academy facility?
• Which light signal should a pilot respond to by returning for landing when in flight?
• What is the recommended action for updating ATIS when new weather is received?
• Which option is NOT one of the basic tail configurations listed?
• What is the sequence of an ATIS message?
• Forward NOTAM data to the ___.
• What RwyCC value defines a COMPACTED SNOW on runway and is described as having GOOD to MEDIUM braking action?
• In distress communications, transfer of responsibility should occur only when what condition is met?
• Which weather product describes conditions expected to begin within the next 12 hours and may impact the flow of air traffic in an ARTCC's area?
• What is the minimum ground visibility required for fixed-wing SVFR operations (excluding scheduled air carrier)?
• When an emergency occurs on the airport proper, ___.
• Whenever an arriving aircraft is inside the ILS Outer Marker (OM) or the fix used in lieu of the OM, do not authorize vehicles/aircraft to operate in the ILS critical area when conditions are a reported ceiling ___ feet or visibility ___ miles.
• What must be determined prior to the issuance of taxi instructions to an aircraft, vehicle, personnel, or equipment?
• An IFR approach conducted while operating on an IFR flight plan that authorizes a pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport via visual landmarks and other information is called what type of approach?
• Can Sequenced Flashing Lights (SFL) be operated when the ALS is off?
• Suspension of OJT can be made by a(n) ________ or ________ to stop training temporarily.
• When must facility frequencies be monitored?
• The basic weather instrument equipment for terminals includes wind indicators and ___.
• Who must be notified when an ELT is heard or reported by a terminal facility?
• When should radio communications of an aircraft under your control be transferred?
• What is the primary objective of the LAHSO example phrase?
• Which option lists only valid fixed-wing category identifiers?
• What common issue arises from heavy reliance on memory during relief briefing?
• An Alert #3 would indicate which type of event?
• Training teams are established by the trainee's ___.
• FD relays tower visibility to other tower positions, McAlester FSS, and which Academy facility?
• When giving or receiving a position relief briefing, a specialist should NOT ___.
• Which term describes the time at which a departing aircraft is permitted to depart to maintain separation from other traffic?
• When wind shear is detected, which indicators are activated on LLWAS?
• What is the reference line used as the runway centerline for a helicopter when determining separation with another aircraft?
• What is the basic radar separation between successive IFR departures?
• How is the type of time prefixed in Field 07 of FDIO messages?
• Separate a Category I aircraft conducting a touch-and-go on the same runway as a preceding Category H aircraft departure by ___ minutes from the time the Category H aircraft ___.
• Any vehicles on the runway must be clear of the runway before a departing aircraft starts takeoff. Which option correctly completes this rule?
• Which statement most accurately reflects the ATIS message duration?
• Which of the following is not generally considered a LC position duty?
• A release time is
• Which of the following is Category H aircraft?
• Which of the following aircraft is categorized as Category H?
• Which forecast product is specifically used to describe aviation weather for an individual airport and surrounding area?
• AAL210, an MD81, departs Runway 28R from the approach end. N10FD, a FA20, is waiting to depart Runway 28R at Charlie. What is the required wake turbulence separation?
• For closely spaced RNAV SID departures, what separation combination is specified for less than 2,500 ft apart?
• Runway surface condition readings (RCR) are issued to which group?
• In a nonradar environment, authorize simultaneous departures from parallel runways when centerlines are separated by at least 3,500 feet and the courses diverge by at least how many degrees immediately after takeoff?
• Which of the following consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, extending across the width of the taxiway?
• What are the approved pattern entries for RWY 28L/R from the South or Riverside?
• How would a '*' at the end of a LLWAS display be read?
• When is new ATIS released?
• If radar is available, what is the minimum radar separation, in miles, for a BE36 to depart behind an MD11?
• Braking action advisories are in effect on ATIS when braking action is reported as ___.
• Local Control prioritizes actions according to their significance in the ___.
• The runway closure in the NOTAM above is scheduled for ___.
• When a pilot is ready for an intersection takeoff and his/her request for takeoff includes a request to deviate from the 3-minute interval, you must ___.
• Who must new ATIS be disseminated to as Flight Data?
• Category I departing behind a Category E aircraft on the same runway requires a time separation of 2 minutes or radar separation of 4 miles.
• At a tower that is not combined with a radar approach control, the Certified Tower Radar Display may be used for ____
• Separate aircraft departing an intersecting runway behind a Category B or D departure by ___ minute(s) if projected flight paths will cross.
• Before any runway use program is implemented, the ___ must coordinate with and encourage participation from the airport proprietor, local community, and aircraft operators who regularly use the airport.
• Operate one-setting taxiway lights during the day when ___.
• What is the lowest usable flight level when the local area altimeter is between 28.91 and 27.92?
• What is required to be issued when severe icing conditions NOT associated with thunderstorms are occurring?
• What is an example of the phraseology used for amending an altitude in a previously issued clearance?
• Which combination of data is described as the minimum information to obtain during an aircraft emergency?
• Certification Skill Checks are administered by the trainee's...?
• SWA601, a B737, executes a missed approach over Runway 28R. N1388V, a C421, is waiting to depart Runway 16. N1388V may depart ___.
• SWA210, a B737, departs runway 28R. A C550 is waiting to depart at an intersection. What is the required wake turbulence separation?
• What type of training may include CBI, Instructor-led training, self-directed study, and simulation?
• Which category does the CL60 aircraft belong to?
• There are two types of safety alerts in the ATC system. Which two are they?
• When necessary for a wheeled helicopter to taxi on the surface area, issue ground movement information in accordance with __________.
• LAHSO simultaneous takeoff and landing operations must only be conducted in which conditions?
• Which scenario describes a no wake turbulence separation requirement?
• Which phraseology would be used to clear to Tulsa Airport via Victor Fourteen?
• How often is a FAA form 7230-4 generated?
• What element does Field 01 show?
• When the RVR indicates a reportable value of 6,000 feet or less, issue the current ______ RVR for the runway in use to departing aircraft.
• Which of the following best describes the type of wind data LLWAS monitors?
• What data do LLWAS remote stations collect at their location and transmit to the master station?
• In radar operations, exact minimum course divergence for parallel runway departures released simultaneously is what?
• When radio communications cannot be established, an aircraft in takeoff position on the runway receiving a flashing red light signal should ___.
• Authorization for an aircraft to taxi on an active runway (other than crossing) must be communicated on which frequency?
• The FAA form used to record the results and the completion of training requirements for qualification courses, proficiency training, and other Agency-approved courses is Form ___.
• Which is NOT a use of CRU-X information?
• A METAR observation is taken how often?
• The recommendation of whether or NOT training should be continued is made to the ATM/District Manager during the training review process.
• Who may suspend a trainee's training based on performance?
• Before broadcasting the message, the ATIS should be checked for ___.
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an aircraft identification feature?
• Who should be notified if an emergency aircraft is known to be carrying explosive materials?
• In a nonradar environment, for two departures that will diverge by 45° or more immediately after takeoff, how many minutes of nonradar separation are required?
• Which statement best describes LAHSO criteria regarding contamination and braking action?
• What action is necessary when an emergency occurs on the airport proper?
• Which statement about wind shear alerts is correct?
• What action must be taken when 'FRC/(fix)' appears on a flight strip?
• OJTI candidates are selected by ___.
• For separation of helicopters, which adjustments may be more practical than course changes?
• Certification Skill Checks are administered by the trainee's ___.
• Under what conditions should access to the ILS critical area be restricted?
• If LLWAS senses a problem at one or more sensors, the tower cab display will indicate '_____________' on the affected Line(s).
• Runway braking action must be described using the terms
• Field 08 is not included in a proposed _____________
• Control formation flights are treated as what?
• Departure information to departing aircraft should include the time when requested. Which item is specifically included?
• Unscheduled observations that meet special criteria will be reported as a ___.
• TEAM is the electronic equivalent of which form?
• Without ASDE-X, do not clear an aircraft for a landing, the option, or low approach on the same runway of an aircraft in LUAW status or taxing into position until __________.
• Which group should participate in Runway Use Program planning before implementation?
• When informed that an aircraft is responding to a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA), do NOT ___?
• Assign an aircraft on a contact approach an altitude of how many feet at or below other IFR traffic?
• In the given scenario, the correct phraseology to direct Baron 6CD to take off from Runway 28R when no other traffic is present is which?
• When a CAT I is following a CAT III arrival, what runway separation is required?
• What phraseology is used for clearing an aircraft to the Tulsa Airport via V14?
• For arriving IFR aircraft, which statement about runway edge lights is true?
• What does SID stand for?
• A wind speed __ KT will result in a 'CALM' message being displayed on the LLWAS display panel
• What is the primary purpose of the ILS critical area?
• Wake turbulence separation minima must continue to which action for all IFR aircraft not making a visual approach or maintaining visual separation?
• Line 1 of the tower cab LLWAS display panel shows averaged Airport Wind (AW), _______________ and audible alarm status. Which time standard is used?
• For LLWS or microburst, ATIS must include wind shear information for at least how many minutes after the last report?
• Operate runway edge lights between sunset and sunrise for arriving IFR aircraft ___.
• What color is the OVRD light when the system handset is used to override on-line recording?
• Which organization is notified when an ELT is heard by a terminal facility?
• Training objectives, team members, and target hours can be found in the ___.
• Situations that present an immediate hazard should be reported to the ___?
• ALS should be operated between sunrise and sunset under which condition?
• In planning, which factor must be considered along with aircraft performance, wake turbulence, closure rate, known weather conditions, and aircraft position to maintain separation after applying visual separation?
• If no data has been received for approximately how many minutes, Line 10 on the tower cab display will indicate COMMUNICATION FAILURE?
• Who may direct FD position to initiate an alert and/or classify the emergency situation?
• Which standby locations would emergency equipment go to for an emergency on Runway 34?
• Who is responsible for setting minimum certification hours?
• Which of the following is a correct example of intersection departure phraseology?
• When arrival/departure messages are broadcast separately, the information should be what?
• What is the purpose of the training team?
• What is the correct phraseology used to assign a Standard Instrument Departure (SID)?
• When an aircraft is responding to a wind shear escape, the controller is not responsible for separation between ___.
• What is the format to obtain a flight plan readout on N23317?
• What is the final word in the SID phraseology after the SID name and number used to assign the departure?
• Braking action advisories must be issued when braking action is reported as less than which value?
• The Certified Tower Radar Display's use in towers not connected to radar approach control is best described as providing which service?
• Which term describes helicopter movement above the surface at speeds generally above 20 knots and below 100 feet AGL, with the last option being the correct term?
• The inbound aircraft to a right base should be instructed with which phraseology?
• Which term should be used to indicate expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation?
• Which weight class completes the standard set Small, Large, Heavy, ___?
• When departing from a helipad, the distance threshold is measured from which reference?
• Minimum distance separation can be applied between two departing Category III aircraft if distances can be determined by reference to suitable landmarks, provided that the preceding aircraft is ___.
• In a nonradar environment, authorize takeoff of a succeeding aircraft from an intersecting runway when the preceding aircraft has _________, the runways diverge by 30° or more, and the courses will diverge by 45° or more.
• During preventive control service, a controller will issue advice or instructions only under what condition?
• Ceiling/sky condition, visibility, and obstructions to vision may be omitted if the ceiling is above ___ feet and the visibility is more than ___ miles.
• Before implantation of a Runway Use Program the ATM should coordinate with and encourage participation from who?
• Which categories are specified as landing behind a departing Category B, C, or D aircraft on a crossing runway with the arrival required to stay clear by 2 minutes?
• Operate the runway edge lights between sunrise and sunset when surface visibility is less than ___ mile(s).
• Ground Control should forward requests to close VFR flight plans to which unit?
• Controllers are required to provide additional services to the extent possible, contingent upon higher priority duties, radar limitations, traffic volume, and ___.
• What is the correct phraseology to cancel the takeoff clearance for the succeeding aircraft?
• Turn the rotating beacon on between sunrise and sunset when the reported ___.
• What is the format to amend the type of aircraft of N34868 to a BE36/A?
• Which is an example of the phraseology used to add a transition onto a SID?
• On RNAV SID, when departures from the same runway/helipad or parallel runways are less than 2,500 ft apart, separation is by how many miles and degrees?
• A safety alert is issued when an aircraft is in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.
• Which of the following is not among the FAA forms referenced for trainee records or facility operations?
• What is the format to amend the aircraft identification of CID 214 to N6968G?
• The Certification Skill Check session ___.
• Which ID code is used when ATIS resumes after more than 12 hours of outage?
• Phraseology to clear an arriving aircraft for landing when the aircraft is not visually observed is which?
• When should you relay the new ATIS code to the other tower operating positions?
• Clear aircraft via routes consistent with the __________ stratum in which the operation is to be conducted.
• When must controllers broadcast HIWAS alerts?
• What are the two possible names for the two types of safety alerts? LP-16, pg. 15
• Which FAA form is used to record weather description on a trainee's record?
• Altitude restricted low approaches are not authorized below how many feet AGL?
• A METAR observation is taken ___?
• Which document would you consult to verify the target hours of a trainee's program?
• Which option is used as the basis for equipment configuration in FAA facilities?
• What does AW stand for on the LLWAS display?
• In MARSA, which organization assumes responsibility for separation of participating aircraft?
• During emergencies, frequencies should be changed only if there is a valid reason.
• At Academy Tower, an emergency with low hydraulic pressure is considered an Alert #___.
• Who issues a time check to a pilot who has received a void time?
• Operate the Approach Light System (ALS) between sunrise and sunset when the prevailing visibility is 5 miles or less, or when the ceiling is less than ___ feet.
• How does a release time impact other airborne aircraft?
• Radar displays are set by the LC to which area of jurisdiction?
• An FDIO system consists of a printer, keyboard, and ___.
• At Academy Tower, Ground Control receives the emergency checklist from which unit?
• Before an arriving aircraft crosses the runway threshold, what must be ensured?
• RA stands for which term in ATC terminology?
• Optimum duration of ATIS.
• Which form contains the time entry in UTC?
• What do AIRMETs supplement?
• What does OJF stand for?
• What does a flashing green light to an aircraft in flight mean?
• Vortices are generated at the moment the aircraft ____.
• In runway condition codes, RCC 5 indicates a WET runway with what braking action?
• In NOTAM text, the virgule is used to
• Unscheduled weather observations that meet special criteria are reported as which term?
• At aneroid-instrument facilities, the margin for error on the comparison of two altimeter setting indicators is +/- ___ in. Hg.
• What is the basic radar separation between successive IFR departures?
• In a radar environment, departures from the same airport/heliport with radar identification established within 1 mile of the takeoff runway require courses to diverge by at least how many degrees?
• Provide airport traffic control service based only upon ___________.
• Use the word __________ only when expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation.
• In radar, when separating a helicopter departure from another aircraft using course divergence, what is treated as the runway centerline for the helicopter?
• Which phraseology clarifies that only the amendment to the route is issued and the rest of the route remains unchanged?
• An example of phraseology for issuing an intersection departure is ___.
• Under what condition is wind shear information included in ATIS for a minimum of 20 minutes after the last report?
• The width of Runway 28R is how many feet?
• Do not request departing military turboprop/turbojet aircraft (except transport and cargo types) to make radio or radar beacon changes before the aircraft reaches ___ feet above the surface.
• Any Academy equipment outages requiring issuance of a NOTAM must be reported to ___?
• Formation flights are treated as what for separation?
• What are the three categories of aircraft?
• During an airport emergency, what is the primary safety measure?
• LC must advise TRACON of all the following except which item?
• How long must an OJTI candidate be certified on a position before he/she can be considered for selection?
• Which condition triggers issuing both midpoint and rollout RVR for a runway's touchdown RVR?
• Which four aspects should be checked prior to broadcasting the ATIS message?
• A designated Short Take Off and Landing (STOL) runway may be assigned only when ___.
• Which type of forecast is the MIS?
• Which facility should be contacted for Academy equipment outages requiring a NOTAM?
• When must the tower take/report prevailing visibility?
• Which phraseology is the official way to authorize an IFR flight-planned aircraft to depart VFR?
• When does the ATIS identification code start over?
• Which weather product describes meteorological phenomena encountered by aircraft in flight?
• Training which improves one's knowledge, skills, and abilities:
• Which feature is used to uniquely identify an ATIS broadcast?
• Tower visibility is forwarded to which entity?
• What is the standard phraseology to authorize an aircraft to take off?
• Operators may conduct 'coupled' or 'autoland' approaches to satisfy what requirements?
• What should you avoid doing, if an aircraft is responding to a wind shear escape?
• If an aircraft is responding to a TCAS RA, which action would be incorrect?
• Lowest usable flight level when local area of jurisdiction altimeter is 29.91 to 28.92
• Weather minima for CVFP approach are a reported ceiling of at least ___ feet above MVA and visibility of at least ___ mile(s).
• What is the purpose of FAA Form 3120-25?
• PIREPs must be forwarded to which unit for dissemination?
• What will the tower cab display show if LLWAS has a data outage on one or more sensors?
• A departure control frequency may be omitted in a clearance if____________
• Place IFR clearance items in correct order
• What is the term for any occurrence at an aerodrome involving inappropriate presence on the protected area of a surface designated for landing and takeoff?
• This is a filler to ensure 15 questions are provided.
• In the example scenario, on which runway did Lear 102KM land?
• When are two periods used in flight plan routes in FDIO messages?
• Except when a runway use program is in effect, use the calm wind runway when ___.
• What determines whether a departure clearance is voided?
• If the Academy FDIO is out of service, which action is required by the FD position regarding IFR clearances?
• N18NC, a LJ20, departs Runway 28R from the approach end. N56CD, a BE58, is waiting to depart Runway 28R at Charlie. What is the required wake turbulence separation?
• What does the training team principally provide to the trainee?
• Before which action must the runway be free of all vehicles, equipment, and personnel?
• If LLWAS receives no data from one or more sensors, what will the tower cab display indicate on the affected lines?
• If you believe there is a communications failure, broadcast clearances through available means, including the voice feature of which facility?
• In the described wake turbulence scenario for N1HD, the separation is 3 minutes after rotation. Which of the following options reflects this rule?
• The ALS intensity settings are operated at Setting 2 during the day when the visibility is___.
• What are the weight classes of aircraft?
• A predetermined geographical position used for route/instrument approach, progress reports, published VFR routes, etc., defined relative to a VORTAC station or in terms of lat/long coordinates.
• Ground Control must obtain approval from ___ before authorizing an aircraft or vehicle to cross or use any portion of an active runway.
• Which feature notes engine location and the number of engines and is used as an aircraft identification feature?
• The LLWAS is comprised of at least how many remote stations?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of an Instrument Departure Procedure?
• Who directly receives the data from the LLWAS system?
• When a runway use program is in effect, the selected runway must...
• How would a Boeing 737-800 be written on a flight strip?
• Which item is NOT included in a standard SID unless required?
• With whom must the local controller coordinate before using a runway not previously designated as the active runway?
• In non-radar operations, simultaneous same-direction departures from parallel runways may be authorized when centerlines are separated by how many feet or more and courses diverge immediately after takeoff?
• Which weight class triggers runway use programs for turbojets?
• Separate an aircraft departing behind a Category B or D departure on a parallel runway separated by 2,500 feet by ___ minute(s) if flight paths will cross.
• Ground Control must also pass requests to close VFR flight plans to ____________.
• IFR separation is required regardless of weather conditions (VMC or IMC). True or False?
• LLWS alerts must be issued to whom until the pilot advises they have received the code, and how should they be broadcast?
• To which position do flight data forward departure flight strips go?
• The FAA form used by OJTIs and Operations Supervisors to record the performance and progress of the trainee is Form ___.
• What action should you take when the new ATIS is being broadcast?
• Aircraft assigned an EDCT should depart as close as possible to the EDCT but no earlier than ___ minutes before and no later than ___ minutes after the EDCT.
• What is the purpose of the target time in the training program?
• When receiving a PIREP, record the ___?
• What does clearance void time indicate?
• To avoid proximity during taxiing, avoid clearances that require small aircraft or helicopters to taxi in proximity to which of the following?
• In a nonradar environment, with no appropriate fix and NO approach control, allow a departure to take off ___ minute(s) before an arriving aircraft is estimated at the airport when the takeoff direction differs by at least 45° from the reciprocal of the final approach course.
• Which of the following is not typically an On-the-Job Familiarization activity?
• Which facility forwards ELT information to RCC?
• The LLWAS system requires ___________.
• A PIREP is a report of meteorological phenomena that is ___.
• If two aircraft depart on runways with flight paths crossing and are separated by 2,500 feet, what is the required wake turbulence separation?
• In the wake turbulence scenario, the required separation is counted after which event?
• Two-way ground-to-air checks of emergency frequencies are performed during low-activity periods at least once every ___.
• When the Local Controller authorizes the crossing of the active runway, they must verbally specify the runway to be crossed, preceded by which word?
• Which weather category is required to authorize a visual approach?
• Local Control must ensure that the runway is free of all known vehicles, equipment, and personnel before a ___.
• Where recorders are convenient to operating quarters, who performs recorder checks?
• Which of the following is an example of LAHSO phraseology to hold short of an intersecting runway?
• During which step does the relieving specialist verify correctness of information received?
• SVFR operations in weather less than VFR minima are authorized when ___.
• When applying initial separation to successive departing aircraft, what factor should be considered?
• The phrase '(ACFT-ID) POSSIBLE PILOT DEVIATION. ADVISE YOU CONTACT (facility) AT (telephone number)' indicates what?
• At Academy Tower, Local Control must forward to TRACON arrival times of all ___ aircraft.
• A notice containing information concerning the establishment, condition, or change in any component, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
• What is a recorded hazardous in-flight weather forecast continuously broadcasted to airborne pilots over selected VOR outlets?
• Which of the following would be least likely to be considered when deciding whether to provide additional ATC services?
• What term indicates bad or no braking action on an airport surface?
• The FAA form 7230-4 is generated on which schedule?
• What will alert the controller that wind shear is present?
• An FAA wind-direction indicator is out of tolerance when it differs from another indicator on the same sensor by how many degrees?
• Which component, if lost, would pose the most risk to safety of flight?
• Ground Control must advise Local Control when an aircraft does what?
• Which radius does the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast typically cover around the airport?
• How many Altimeter Setting Indicators (ASIs) are required in a terminal facility?
• When runways are not visible from the control tower and you are about to release an aircraft to the ground controller, what should you do?
• Which term defines the target time in OJT programs?
• In nonradar environment, parallel runways with simultaneous departures require centerline separation of at least what and courses divergence of at least how much immediately after takeoff?
• The Low-Level Windshear Alert System (LLWAS) is designed to detect what?
• Avoid clearances that require small aircraft or helicopters to taxi in proximity to taxiing or ___ helicopters.
• A Performance Skill Check is used to ___.
• The LLWAS display panel located in the TRACON is normally used to report wind conditions ___________.
• A taxi clearance to an assigned takeoff runway authorizes the aircraft to cross all taxiways ___.
• Authorize simultaneous takeoffs, not flying an RNAV SID, for aircraft departing non-intersecting runways if runways diverge by at least _________.
• Which type of safety alert indicates a potential terrain or obstruction hazard at low altitude?
• The phraseology to authorize an aircraft to execute a restricted low approach is ___________.
• What are the three basic types of landing gear?
• Who is responsible for ensuring emergency vehicles have radio capability on the Ground Control frequency or are escorted to/from the accident scene?
• A rapid change in wind speed and/or direction in a short distance, existing in a horizontal and/or vertical direction.
• What is used to determine the runway centerline when authorizing a simultaneous departure/arrival to/from a helipad?
• Which taxi route is used in the AAC example phraseology?
• A NOTAM provides timely information essential to flight operations about changes in which?
• An aircraft weight 12,500 pounds or less with propeller-driven twin engines is considered which category?
• What is the tolerance for an Altimeter Setting Indicator at a precision approach facility?
• Inform the LUAW aircraft of the closest traffic within how many flying miles when requesting a full-stop, touch-and-go, stop-and-go, option, or low approach to the same runway?
• To separate a departing helicopter from an arriving helicopter, ensure the departure does not take off until the arrival has ____________.
• Identify the aircraft designation abbreviated as C208.
• Who can recommend additional training hours?
• What information is needed on arrival/departure messages when they are broadcast separately?
• An AIRMET is issued to supplement what type of weather report?
• Which acronym describes an IFR approach that allows proceeding visually to the airport via landmarks and other information while remaining clear of clouds?
• What does MARSA stand for in aviation terminology?
• In a MARSA procedure, a controller provides separation between participating military aircraft and which type of traffic?
• Not normally issued in a VFR-on-top clearance?
• Which document is used to assess an individual's progress on an operational position?
• Which term describes a condition where ATC may delay a departure until released?
• Situations presenting an immediate hazard concerning safety of flight must be reported to the ___________.
• The minimum distance required for a Category I departing behind a Category III on the same runway is ___ feet.
• A list of items to be covered during a position relief briefing is called a ___.
• Which groups of aircraft should be instructed to contact departure control about one-half mile beyond the runway end?
• Which weather product is used to alert pilots about weather hazards that is a short-term, unscheduled forecast for ongoing weather within a two-hour window?
• Which action corresponds to removing the flight strip UAL720 CID 112?
• Wind shear coordination: Which statement describes the controller's responsibility during a wind shear escape?
• Which spacing phraseology is most associated with circling the airport to gain spacing?
• What SRS is required between subsequent arrivals when at least one of the aircraft on approach to land is a CAT III?
• When radar is available, BE36 departing after an MD11 must maintain a minimum radar separation of how many miles?
• Two different instruments for measuring pressure are a barometer and ___.
• Which item may be omitted in IFR clearance if not applicable?
• Information obtained from other than an authorized airport or FAA employee must be ___ before issuance.
• What is an example of the phraseology used for an abbreviated departure clearance?
• During simultaneous operations between departures and arrivals on parallel runways, the departure course must diverge immediately from the missed approach course by at least how many degrees until separation is applied?
• In FDIO routing notation, what is the purpose of using two periods between elements?
• When should a new ATIS broadcast be made?
• To indicate N20WK aircraft type as Super King Air BE20/L, which amendment line should be used?
• Which option demonstrates the proper abbreviated clearance to DUPAGE COUNTY AIRPORT AS FILED with altitude 1100?
• Which category would the B737 belong to?
• Who does the trainee advise of any extenuating circumstance(s) that might impede training progress?
• Which statement is true about ATC services for model aircraft operating in the NAS at or below what altitude?
• In a nonradar environment, when the takeoff direction differs by at least 45° from the reciprocal of the final approach course, the departure must take off before the arrival leaves a fix inbound not less than ___ mile(s) from the airport.
• Which format to amend CID 214's aircraft identification to N6968G?
• When it is determined that an emergency aircraft has explosive material aboard, who should be notified?
• Which recorder switch setting allows the balance of a recording to remain active after an edit function has completed?
• Which of the following is a Category F aircraft?
• When an aircraft is responding to an RA, the controller is not responsible for separation ________________.
• Who has the legal authority to close a runway?
• NOTAMS included in ATIS broadcast should be those that affect operations in which area?
• What action is required when landing area conditions information is obtained from other than authorized airport or FAA personnel?
• REILs are operated in conjunction with which lights?
• LC must use which to maintain the arrival/departure sequence?
• Which FAA form is used for a daily record to document facility operations?
• The wake categories of aircraft are designated as which of the following?
• What is the minimum reported ground visibility for a contact approach?
• When one or both departures is from a helipad, use ________ as the threshold for reference when determining distance.
• If an aircraft sees the airport or runway but NOT the preceding aircraft, the aircraft may be cleared for a visual approach if radar separation or visual separation is maintained.
• Which exact radio phrase identifies Runway 28R in the example sequence?
• What does a steady red light directed at an aircraft on the ground indicate?
• What is reported from certified direct-reading instruments?
• A documented review used to evaluate an individual's training progress on an operational position is?
• What must be included with the altitude on a VFR-on-top clearance?
• Which item is used to guide the relief briefing and can be consulted during the handoff?
• When should frequencies be changed during emergencies?
• When delaying departures on the ground, which sequencing rule should be followed?
• When a taxi clearance is to a runway is issued to an aircraft, confirm that the aircraft has the correct what?
• Airport management must be advised when breaking action is reported as...
• An example of phraseology used to achieve proper spacing is ___________.
• In runway condition codes, RCC 4 describes a surface condition equivalent to what?
• When a Runway Use Program is in use, ATC will assign a runway that is ___________.
• Straight-wing, swept-wing, and ___ are the three basic types of wing configuration.
• Local controllers must visually scan runways to the maximum extent possible.
• Hold For Release (HFR) instructions are ___.
• True or False: The LLWAS is designed to detect wind shear and microburst activity.
• During a MARSA procedure, separation is required between participating military aircraft and which type of traffic?
• When must a Certification Skill Check (CSC) be conducted?
• The width of Runway 28R is ___ feet.
• On a REIL three-setting system, Setting 2 must be used during the day when the visibility is ___.
• Which of the following is the correct phraseology to taxi an aircraft from Spartan Aviation, that is requesting an intersection departure?
• Which action is an example of a spacing technique commonly used on final?
• What does OJF stand for in the training program context?
• What are issued for thunderstorms, tornadoes, and hail 3/4 inch or larger, but do NOT include references to all weather associated with thunderstorms?
• Which field is used to indicate the message type in an FDIO message?
• Which data are reported by certified direct-reading instruments? (Variant of ATIS data)
• LLWAS data is directly received by which entity?
• During daylight LAHSO, the second CAT II may land if the first aircraft is at least how many feet from the landing threshold?
• Which weather advisory is issued for significant weather phenomena not related to thunderstorms?
• At Academy Tower, Ground Control receives the emergency checklist from ___.
• Who uses the Satisfactory, Needs Improvement, and Unsatisfactory columns in Block 11 of FAA Form 3120-25?
• In the example scenario, Lear 102KM is classified as which aircraft category?
• The weather criteria to clear an aircraft for a visual approach is which of the following?
• In instrument landing system operations, what does a 'coupled' or 'autoland' approach imply?
• Local control must coordinate with Ground control before using a runway not previously designated as active.
• Which step describes taking on the duties and responsibilities of the relieved position?
• TEAM is a permanent record for what?
• Air Traffic Control services are not provided to model aircraft operating in the NAS ______________.
• Do not issue the word ___ in conjunction with authorization for aircraft to taxi.
• What is the primary function of TEAM?
• Ground Control must notify Local Control when an aircraft is taxiing to which location for departure?
• Most CAT I aircraft generally operate within the 300 to 550 knots speed range.
• When implementing a hold for release, if conditions allow, when should the aircraft be released?
• Avoid clearances that require small aircraft or helicopters to taxi in proximity to taxiing or ___ helicopters.
• An example of appropriate phraseology to instruct an aircraft to turn off the runway is which?
• What are the three basic types of engines found on aircraft today?
• ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded ___ information.
• Which phrasing correctly states the frequency combination used for taxi authorization on an active runway?
• Departing aircraft that will be vectored immediately after takeoff must have their initial headings assigned when?
• A leading edge of gusty surface winds from thunderstorm downdrafts.
• On-the-Job Training is the correct choice for which scenario?
• Which unit is typically responsible for issuing initial departure clearances?
• Which of the following lengths is NOT a valid aircraft ID length?
• What information is displayed on the LLWAS TRACON display?
• Under the Runway Use Program, what crosswind component is allowed for runways not clear and not dry?
• In a nonradar environment, what must be true before allowing a second aircraft to take off from an intersecting runway when the first has not yet passed the intersection point?
• If an intersection takeoff request deviates from the 3-minute interval, what must you issue prior to clearance?
• What condition requires issuing official ceiling and visibility to VFR aircraft?
• At the Academy Tower, NOTAM information is posted in the ___.
• One purpose of the ATIS is to ___.
• Unless required for content completeness, an ATIS message should not exceed the optimum duration of ___.
• Who develops a training plan prior to the start of OJT?
• What must be done if a trainee's training is suspended due to performance?
• Which term describes helicopter movement above the surface at slow speed, generally below 20 knots and 25 feet AGL?
• During overhead Simulated Flameout (SFO) approaches, what should be issued to the aircraft at low key?
• A microburst encounter poses a serious threat to aircraft during takeoff or landing because it produces which type of wind shear?
• In a scenario where an ELT information must be forwarded to the RCC, which facility handles this?
• What is the purpose of the four-step position relief briefing process?
• When using the OVERLAY/END switch, the 'ON LINE/MON EDITE/RECORD' switch must be in the ________ position.
• Who is responsible to take action to detect, prevent, and report false, deceptive, or phantom controller communications to an aircraft or controller?
• What is a Brasher Warning?
• An example of a technique used to achieve proper spacing includes telling the aircraft to _____________.
• On-the-Job Familiarization (OJF) hours are hours spent ___.
• Issue both midpoint and rollout RVR when the value of either is less than ___ feet and the value of the touchdown RVR is greater than the midpoint or rollout.
• What is an unscheduled planning forecast describing conditions expected to begin sometime within the next 12 hours which may impact the flow of air traffic in a specific center's (ARTCC) area?
• In an aviation emergency, which person has the final authority on action?
• Which term describes helicopter movement above the surface at slow speed, generally below 20 knots and 25 feet AGL?
• Between sunset and sunrise, what is the minimum distance from the landing threshold when a Category II aircraft is behind a Category I?
• An IFR flight plan approach that authorizes the pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport is a(n)
• Which statement describes action when ATIS code/message changes?
• Information issued to arriving aircraft that will conduct an overhead maneuver includes which of the following?
• What is the meaning of an alternating red and green light to pilots or ground vehicles?
• Separate successive departures from same runway/helipad or parallel runways/helipads separated by less than 2,500 ft feet by ________ miles and ___________.
• Which of the following is NOT an approved pattern entry for RWY 28L/R from Southeast or MacDonald's Bridge?
• Avoid clearances that ___.
• When delays exceed or are expected to exceed how many minutes should gate hold procedures be implemented?
• Which phrase indicates that a clearance involves crossing only the taxiways that intersect the taxi route?
• What ground visibility requirements exists for SVFR helicopters?
• This provides obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure.
• When you receive information that an emergency landing will be made with explosive cargo aboard, inform the pilot of the ___.
• During the day, which taxiway lighting setting should be used when visibility is less than 1 mile?
• In a radar environment, parallel runway departures may be released simultaneously if centerlines are separated by at least 2,500 feet and courses diverge by at least 15 degrees; which two details define this rule?
• What must a controller do when 'FRC' appears on a flight strip?
• Which control must be notified regarding a departing aircraft being taxied to a nonactive runway?
• What is the primary cause of runway incursions?
• Separate a Category I aircraft departing on the same runway from an intersection behind a preceding departing Category G aircraft by ensuring that it does NOT start takeoff roll until ___ minutes after the large aircraft has ___.
• Which of the following is an example of the correct phraseology used to request an aircraft to hold short of a runway?
• Do not allow vehicles or aircraft operations in or over the ILS critical area when an arriving aircraft is inside the MM, 1/2 miles final, and the weather observation indicates a ceiling of less than _________ or RVR less than __________.
• When the Academy FDIO is out of service, what action must the FD position take?
• In non-radar operations, what condition allows simultaneous departures from parallel runways on a given set of centerlines and courses?
• In the LAHSO example, which traffic is mentioned?
• What phraseology is used to amend a previously issued clearance?